1.2: The definition of economics
I think many economists would agree with the following: Economics is the study of how people choose to use their scarce resources to attempt to satisfy their unlimited wants. Consider the following alternative definition: Economics is the study of how people's choices among alternatives are affected by their perceptions of the likelihoods and values (positive or negative) of the alternatives. Which makes more sense? Why? Much of what you will find below this paragraph addresses these questions and, I hope, will help give you a better basis for answering them. Nevertheless, I encourage you to think about these questions now as preparation for what you may read below.
1.3: Rationality in choice -- rational self-interestOne key component of standard economic theory is the belief that the choices people make are rational. As you may suspect, not all economists agree about what, in this context, "rational" means. Many economists hold that people make rational choices when they make choices that they may reasonably believe will make them happier or better off. Again, as you may suspect, there is no unanimity about the meaning of "happier" or "better off." Without getting embroiled at this point in examining what "rational," "happier," or "better off" mean, let us for the moment try to make do with commonsense interpretation of the words and see how far we can get. I start with some obvious questions: Do people always make logical, rational choices? Do they ever do things that they know are not in their best interest? Do people sometimes behave irrationally? Moreover, do people's choices only depend on their own happiness or how better off they are, without regard to how their choices affect those they care about? I suggest we should also consider the latter: Do people behave in ways that make not only themselves but also those they care about better off and happier? Why are many items sold for $2.99 rather than $3.00? How can this fact be reconciled with the notion of rational self-interest? Standard macroeconomic theory almost but not quite assumes that people do whatever makes them happy, and this is the sole basis for what they do. If that is so, then, to predict what they will do, we simply have to find out what makes them happy. Of course, things are considerably more complicated. Obviously, more than one action may make them happy. Which alternative will they choose? The alternative that makes them happiest? But that leads to more complications. We need a way to rank-order alternatives in terms of how happy they will make a person. We do not necessarily have to be able to assign a number, a quantity of happiness, to an alternative; however, we do have to be able to say that alternative A will give rise to more (or less) happiness than alternative B. How are we going to be able to do this? If we can't, then we are again facing great difficulty in predicting what people will do. Moreover, presumably economists must not only be able to evaluate accurately the relative happiness potential of different alternatives, but also the persons who choose among the alternatives must be able to do so -- or think they can. If a person is to choose the alternative he or she anticipates will lead to the greatest happiness, then the person must have a way of coming to such a conclusion. How do people do this? It seems, at this point, as if economics can only be a useful basis for predicting what people will do if, first, there is a well-developed science of psychology -- at least the psychology of choice and happiness. Moreover, to get back to the questions raised above: If people don't always do what makes themselves and those they care about better off and happier, then predicting what they will do obviously requires our knowing whether and when what they do will depend on making themselves and those they care about better off and happier, and whether and when it will depend on something else. In the latter case, we will have to look into what that "something else" may be, and try to understand its (or their, if there is more than one "something else") influence on behavior. It sounds that we are once more getting into psychology.
And, by the way, while we are digging into this so deeply: Is there a distinction between becoming happier and becoming better off? Just what does "better off" mean? It has an economic sound to it. Does it mean more prosperous? What if an alternative makes a person less happy but better off? Suppose another alternative makes a person less well off but happier? Is this even possible? I suppose so, because if becoming better off always makes a person happier, and vice-versa, then why bother to mention both? Anyhow, if "better off" and "happier" are not interchangeable, then how would a person choose when they call for different choices? To make accurate predictions, it appears that we would need somehow to build a conversion table: so many units of happiness equal so many units of well-off-ness. Is this even possible? Another complication involves probability. For example, is one dollar as desirable as a fifty-fifty chance of getting two dollars? Everyday experience indicates that people have very different preferences when probability is involved. Some people like to gamble; some don't; many are willing to gamble about some things but not about others; some don't mind probability rather than certainty when it comes to possible gains, but do mind when it comes to possible losses. It is the prevalence of the latter attitude that enables insurance companies to make a profit. Another complication involves the expenditure of resources necessary to gather the information necessary to make a fully informed choice. The great organization management theorist, Herbert Simon, pointed out that organization managers usually find it impractical to gather all the information they need to be able to choose the best possible alternative. He calls choosing such an alternative "optimizing." He says that, instead, managers normally "satisfice," i.e., choose a reasonably satisfactory alternative, and then go on to the next choice that they have to make. If people do not always make the best possible choice, does this undermine economic theory? Furthermore, just as we appear to need a way to relate happiness to well-off-ness, the macroeconomic model appears to require a way to relate one's own happiness (or well-off-ness) to that of those we care about. Suppose an alternative makes a person happier but makes those she or he cares about less happy? Or vice-versa? Again, is this even possible? Perhaps, when we care about people, then their happiness makes us happy, their unhappiness makes us unhappy, etc. But it still seems as if we have gotten into more complications. We obviously don't necessarily care equally about everybody we care about. It seems as if we need a way to determine the relative amount of caring a person feels about different people. How would twice as much happiness for a person he or she cares about balance against half as much happiness for another person she or he cares about four times as much? Furthermore, do people care as much about their own well-offness and happiness as they do about how well off or happy others are? I suspect that at least some people find their own prosperity and happiness more vivid and immediate, something they care more about, than the prosperity and happiness of even those others they love and care about the most. To take this a step further: Don't we not only care about the well-being and happiness of other individuals but also care about more abstract entities. For example, I care about the well-being of my country. Again, it seems as if we need a way to weigh caring about A versus caring about B. This discussion seems to me to be getting weird, but I don't see how we can escape questions like this if we are going to use economics to make practical predictions. What do you think?
To get back to the beginning of this discussion: Were your major life decisions, such as choice of a career, entirely rational choices? Did you spell out for yourself your goals and attitudes? Did you list for yourself all the alternatives available, then decide what benefits each offered, and what costs it might entail? Do you always make only rational choices? To what extent is the economists' notion that people make rational choices equivalent to assuming that humans are like the Vulcan ideal, that we behave logically and are never lured by emotion from the logical, i.e., rational path? If that is what economists assume, is it a logical or rational assumption? If that is not what economists assume, what are they assuming, and how does it differ? At the beginning of his book, "Listening with the Third Ear," the famous psychiatrist, Theodor Reik, recounts something that happened to him when he was a medical student in Vienna. I paraphrase his story. One of Reik's teachers was Sigmund Freud, the founder of psychoanalysis. One night, young Theodor was wandering in downtown Vienna, wondering whether he should specialize in psychiatry or, instead, some other medical specialty. While thinking, he stopped in front of a store window and stared at his reflection in the glass. Suddenly, he became aware that another person was also reflected in the window. Standing next to him was Freud. The professor said, "You look troubled. Is something bothering you?" Reik explained that he was having a difficult time deciding which medical specialty to choose. "How have you gone about deciding?" Freud asked. Reik explained that he had made a list of the benefits and costs of the various alternatives, then assigned numerical values to each benefit and each cost. Next, he had added up the numbers, assigning positive values to the benefits and negative values to the costs. However, after all that, he still could not make up his mind. Somehow, that approach did not seem to address the real issues. "You are correct," Freud told him. "You couldn't have chosen a worse way to make an important decision. Your approach is fine for an unimportant decision, such as which show to go to or which restaurant to dine in. However, for an important decision, such as which person to marry, or which career to choose, it is almost worthless. You see, we humans don't really know our deepest, most important desires. We really don't know what drives us." Freud continued, "The best way to make an important decision is to try to picture as vividly and clearly as possible how it would feel to have chosen each alternative and have to live the life that would result. Then, note how you feel. If your emotional reaction is negative, avoid that alternative, no matter how logical it seems, no matter how high a score it gets when you add up the numbers. On the other hand, if you feel happy and excited about an alternative, that is likely to be the one you should choose." Is Freud's point of view compatible with standard economic theory? Certain types of injury to the brain's frontal lobes ruin people's ability to connect their experiences (including choices they may be considering) with their emotional reactions. Such people's ability to reason logically, e.g., to solve puzzles that require logical deduction, is not impaired. However, they usually make a terrible mess of their lives. Does this have any relevance to the discussion here? Suppose an economist asserts: "Whatever the reason, people choose the option that at the time gives them the greatest satisfaction. This is rational self-interest." Does this definition of rational self-interest so dilute its meaning that it can hardly be considered rational? The same economist or another might assert: "The term 'rational' refers to the comparison of costs and benefits." Are the two quotes in this paragraph mutually consistent? Moreover, do people always compare costs and benefits when they make choices? Can they always do so? Consider Freud's comments. Economists generally agree that people may differ with respect to what they like or dislike about an alternative. If we don't know what a person likes or dislikes, how can we predict what that person is going to do? If, by definition, people always choose what they like, this enables us -- after the fact -- always to be confident they chose rationally. But that seems to be circular reasoning. We assume that people choose rationally, then we conclude that whatever they chose must have been the rational choice because, by assumption, people choose rationally. What do you think? Two world-class economists, Daniel Kahneman and Vernon Smith, who won the Nobel Prize in economics, question the notion that humans are perfectly capable of rational judgments about how to handle money. They conclude that we humans may want as much money as possible, but we do not go about getting it in ways that are altogether rational. Finally, some economists have been known to assert: "Most of the time people consider costs and benefits." Are they hedging? Aren't they admitting that some of the time economic theory won't predict what people will do? If so, when can we count on economic theory, and when should we not count on it?
1.4: Is economics normative?
Science seeks to describe and predict what does or will actually happen. Normative analysis seeks to describe and predict what should happen. Can it be that economic analysis is normative when economists assume that people base their decisions on rational self-interest, on comparison of costs and benefits? Can it be that economists think that people ought to decide in this way?
1.5: Are people's wants limitless?Standard economic theory assumes that people's wants are unlimited. Are people's wants truly unlimited? If so, then why is so much money and energy devoted to advertising, to trying to stimulate people's cravings and demands? Is it not at least conceivable that, if not in our society then in another culture, people might be contented with what they have? Could the economists' belief that people's wants are unlimited be self-fulfilling, because it leads those who make decisions that affect our economy to assume that people will never be satisfied with what they have, and consequently the decisionmakers do not plan or organize the economy in a way that permits people to feel they have enough and act on that belief?
If wants were not unlimited, would people still have to make choices? More fundamentally, how critical to the theory of economics is the assumption that wants are unlimited?
1.6: The role of scarcity in macroeconomic theoryIf wants were not unlimited, could there still be scarcity? If wants are unlimited, can there ever be freedom from scarcity? In standard economic theory, an economic good is defined as something that there is not enough of to satisfy everyone who wants it. Does the assumption that wants are unlimited imply that anything that anyone wants is an economic good? Is there a difference between a want and a need? If they are different, how are they different? Is the difference, or absence of a difference, relevant to economics? If so, how? For example, might wants be unlimited but needs limited?
1.7: Microeconomics vs. macroeconomicsAccording to the Encyclopedia of Business and Finance, "Economics . . . can be divided into two areas: macroeconomics and microeconomics. To differentiate between the two, the analogy of the forest and the individual trees can be helpful. Macroeconomics is the study of the behaviors and activities of the economy as a whole; hence, the forest. Microeconomics looks at the behaviors and activities of individual households and firms, the individual components that make up the whole economy; hence, the individual trees. . . . "Macroeconomics, being the study of the behaviors and activities of the economy as a whole, looks at such areas as the Federal Reserve System, unemployment, gross domestic product, and business cycles. . . . "Microeconomics looks at the individual components of the economy, such as costs of production, maximizing profits, and the different market structures."
Usually, what applies to one member of a group, e.g., microeconomics, does not apply to the group as a whole because, in the latter case, the individuals that make up the group may interact in ways that change how each behaves, compared to how each would behave if the others were not there. It is a good general rule that, whenever more than one entity is involved, we consider how the different entities affect each other. A whole is more than the sum of its parts: it is the sum of its parts plus their interactions. To fail to take this into account leads to the fallacy of composition. An economic example: Suppose a merchant decides to keep his store open an hour after all his competitors have closed their stores. Thereby, he may get some additional customers. However, if all the competing merchants do the same, then none will gain any advantage, and they may indeed experience a loss due to the additional cost of staying open longer.
Clearly, in macroeconomics we must beware of the fallacy of composition. Specifically, principals of microeconomics may not apply in macroeconomics.
1.8: ResourcesStandard macroeconomic theory recognizes three kinds of resources (also referred to as "productive inputs"or "factors of production": land, labor, and capital. They facilitate production, but are not the raw materials of production. In standard macroeconomic theory: land comprises all natural resources, i.e., whatever may be gotten from the ecosystem, including forests, fisheries, minerals, and water; labor comprises work done by people in the work force; and capital comprises human made tools or equipment, including factories and warehoused finished or unfinished goods. Land is distinguished from capital by not being produced by humans. Is outer space a resource? If so, what kind of resource is it -- land, labor, or capital? Does it make a difference whether resources can be used over and over or, once used (such as coal, when it is burned), are gone forever (or for a very long time)? If it does make a difference, what is that difference? Is it important? If so, why? Does capital include cash, stocks, bonds, or money in bank accounts? Economists differ about the answer to this question. What do you think? When this latter kind of capital multiplies, say, by earning interest, is this kind of increase in wealth different from increase in wealth by using the other kind of capital (e.g., factory equipment) to produce goods? Is capital (such as machinery) ever rented, i.e., does it earn money for its owner, while the renter uses it to produce goods? If so, is it still appropriate to consider it capital, or is it better to consider it land?
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